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Indeed. If they can successfully rebind the Bill of Rights as applied to states based on P&I instead of the due process clause, the Bill of Rights may evaporate for non-citizen immigrants. A state(i.e. Republican ones) may then pass discriminatory laws for which the Bill of Rights no longer applies against.


> may then pass discriminatory laws for which the Bill of Rights no longer applies against.

Cannot they already do this to some limited extent (and perhaps are even required to do so)? For example, laws concerning voting.




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