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> No he didn't. To put it bluntly

Of course he/she did. The entire premise is based on the notion that the nations before the US were somehow just and the US was not, despite the fact that they were all built on just as much violence and conquering.



> Of course he/she did.

"It's so obvious I cannot point where the person said it".

> The entire premise is based on the notion that the nations before the US were somehow just and the US was not

The commenter in question both implicitly and explicitly has said that is not the premise.

I can only repeat what I said to the other person:

> You're arguing against a nonexistent entity. And the point of my responding to you is to get you back to the reality of the thread, not an imaginary conversation that others here cannot see.


> the entire premise is based on the notion that the nations before the US were somehow just and the US was not

No, it’s not. It’s based on the premise that massacres and the legislative dispossession of native lands is wrong. I don’t see why this is a controversial stance

> despite the fact that they were all built in just as much violence and conquering

This is a false equivalency. There was never a single group which built a transcontinental empire, killing, displacing, and ultimately forcing assimilation upon all other groups using organized state violence, all in a few hundred years. The tribal violence in some regions on North America just isn’t the same thing and doesn’t justify the genocide. Even if it was the same thing, it still doesn’t justify genocide. Justifying genocide with genocide doesn’t really make much sense to me




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