I imagine the parent is questioning why the definition for "a substantial dampening in competition" is so strict. To me it seems that they are claiming that this clearly constitutes a substantial dampening in competition, and are thus questioning why it is not illegal.
Clearly, I do not know. Having used both, I do realize their target markets are somewhat separated as is pointed out in the linked article as well. I am dubious on the expansion of Okta's pricing power as a result of this acquisition, but I do not really have the kind of data I would need to be able accurately gauge that.
