If you want to get into the semantics without outright denying the atrocities of Stalinism, I don’t know if the Holodomor was specifically motivated by any specific animus towards the Ukrainian people. Maybe it was! But my understanding is that the causes were more around attempting to exert control over the agricultural economy, punish the “kulaks” (who tended to be the most productive farmers) and ship more and more grain into the rapidly industrializing cities even though there wouldn’t be enough left to feed the people who grew it in the first place.

Local Russian officials seized grain and other foodstuffs from farmers, including the last reserves of food from people's pantries and cupboards. It certainly seemed they wanted the people starved.

They also did this to farmers in parts of Russia and IIRC Kazakhstan though. What I’m saying is that it wasn’t, to my knowledge, motivated by any particular nationalistic hatred for Ukrainians in particular. Everybody in the Soviet system knew they would end up in gulag or killed if they didn’t go along with whatever Stalin demanded, and what he demanded was unreasonable grain quotas and the liquidation of “kulaks” (interpreted to mean, any farmer who didn’t deliver the quota must be a reactionary sabotaging the great communist revolution). This is what happened as a consequence. It was horrible and it is one of the reasons I am one of the most anticommunist people you will ever meet. But was it motivated by ethnic hatred? Not that I am aware of, but I’d be open to learning any evidence that it was.

They made it illegal to glean, which certainly goes beyond farmers (farmers traditionally being the word for the people who owned the land not so much the people that worked it)