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Not really. Transaction costs / vig (commonly 5%) and counterparty risk eat up theoretical arbitrage profits.

The main arbitrage opportunity was in finding ways to place illega bets in the bettor's jurisdiction.



I read that some markets had >10% differences and from what I can tell, polymarket transaction costs are 2% of profit. That said, Im not sure that all of the listed markets had open financial access, so it stands that there were real reasons the differences were sustained and people didn't do exactly what I said.




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