If the victim handed a weapon over to the past perpetrator of offences of the victim's free will, unprompted, is it really victim blaming to attribute the perpetrator's state of being able to reoffend 100% to the perp?
Alternatively, consider the world in which the claim that it is victim blaming is 100% true. Such a world, where large parts of the U.S. are focusing their attention on righting grievances instead of anything else, is a world where the U.S. is too distracted by actual civil war to avoid suffering conquest by foreign powers.
Alternatively, consider the world in which the claim that it is victim blaming is 100% true. Such a world, where large parts of the U.S. are focusing their attention on righting grievances instead of anything else, is a world where the U.S. is too distracted by actual civil war to avoid suffering conquest by foreign powers.