Given that “put X into a bikini” is constitutionally protected speech, and the output fails the Roth test for obscenity and is thus the same, would not every other law be null and void w.r.t. stoping this? And “qualifies as X according to some unelected org with no lawmaking power” is even weaker than a law.
You dislike it. I get it. I do too. But this is a discussion of law. Legally, I do not see how any law was broken. I welcome any citation to the contrary. I note, again, that "some unelected org said so" is not a weighty argument when the opposition is the SCOTUS's clear stance on the 1st amendment.
You dislike it. I get it. I do too. But this is a discussion of law. Legally, I do not see how any law was broken. I welcome any citation to the contrary. I note, again, that "some unelected org said so" is not a weighty argument when the opposition is the SCOTUS's clear stance on the 1st amendment.